Mar 2, 2013

CCNA Discovery 3 Chapter 4 V4.0 Answers


DRSEnt Chapter 4 – CCNA Discovery: Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise (Version 4.0)

1. What are two benefits of implementing a VLSM addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
allows efficient use of address space
supports hierarchical addressing capability
supports only one subnet mask length throughout the entire network
allows efficient use of larger routing tables to eliminate the need for route summarization
solves the problem of discontiguous networks with classful routing protocols

2. When running NAT, what is the purpose of address overloading?
limit the number of hosts that can connect to the WAN
allow multiple inside addresses to share a single global address
force hosts to wait for an available address
allow an outside host to share inside global addresses

3. Which two IP addresses represent the network and broadcast addresses for the network that includes host 192.168.100.130/27? (Choose two.)
network 192.168.100.0
network 192.168.100.128
network 192.168.100.130
broadcast 192.168.100.157
broadcast 192.168.100.159
broadcast 192.168.100.255

4. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
reduced routing table size
dynamic address assignment
automatic route redistribution
reduced routing update traffic
automatic summarization at classful boundaries

5. What range of networks are summarized by the address and mask, 192.168.32.0/19?
192.168.0.0/24 – 192.168.32.0/24
192.168.0.0/24 – 192.168.31.0/24
192.168.32.0/24 – 192.168.64.0/24
192.168.32.0/24 – 192.168.63.0/24

6. What is a characteristic of a classful routing protocol on the network?
All subnets are seen by all routers.
CIDR addresses are advertised.
A subnet can be further subnetted down and advertised correctly.
Updates received by a router in a different major network have the default mask applied.

7. A network administrator is asked to design a new addressing scheme for a corporate network. Presently, there are 500 users at the head office, 200 users at sales, 425 at manufacturing, and 50 at the research site. Which statement defines the correct VLSM addressing map with minimal waste using the 172.16.0.0/16 network?
172.16.0.0/20 head office
172.16.1.0/21 manufacturing
172.16.1.0/22 sales
172.16.3.0/26 research
172.16.48.0/19 head office
172.16.16.0/20 manufacturing
172.16.48.128 sales
172.16.48.0/26 research
172.16.0.0/23 head office
172.16.2.0/23 manufacturing
172.16.4.0/24 sales
172.16.5.0/26 research
172.16.2.0/22 head office
172.16.3.0/23 manufacturing
172.16.4.0/26 sales
172.16.4.128/25 research

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two are valid VLSM network addresses for the serial link between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
192.168.1.4/30
192.168.1.8/30
192.168.1.90/30
192.168.1.101/30
192.168.1.190/30

9. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the show ip nat translationscommand, which kind of address translation is in effect on this router?
static
public
overload
private

10. A network engineer is implementing a network design using VLSM for network 192.168.1.0/24. After subnetting the network, the engineer has decided to take one of the subnets, 192.168.1.16/28 and subnet it further to provide for point-to-point serial link addresses. What is the maximum number of subnets that can be created from the 192.168.1.16/28 subnet for serial connections?
1
2
4
6
8
16

11. How many addresses will be available for dynamic NAT translation when a router is configured with the following commands?
Router(config)#ip nat pool TAME 209.165.201.23 209.165.201.30 netmask 255.255.255.224
Router(config)#ip nat inside source list 9 pool TAME
7
8
9
10
24
31

12. Refer to the exhibit. All networks that are shown have a /24 prefix. Assuming that all routes have been discovered by all routers in the network, which address will successfully summarize only the networks that are shown?
192.168.8.0/21
192.168.8.0/24
192.168.16.0/20
192.168.16.0/21
192.168.16.0/24

13. What two pieces of information can be determined from the host IP address of 192.168.2.93/29? (Choose two.)
The number of bits borrowed for the subnetwork is 5.
The number of usable hosts for each subnetwork is 14.
The /29 translates to a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248.
The network address for this host is 192.168.2.80/29.
The broadcast address for this network is 192.168.2.94/29.

14. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is assigned an IP address of 10.118.197.55/20. How many additional networked devices will this subnetwork support?
253
509
1021
2045
4093

15. When configuring NAT on a Cisco router, what is the inside local IP address?
the IP address of an inside host as it appears to the outside network
the IP address of an outside host as it appears to the inside network
the IP address of an inside host as it appears to the inside network
the configured IP address assigned to a host in the outside network

16. Which two addresses could be used as private IP addresses in a LAN? (Choose two.)
10.10.1.200
172.31.100.254
172.64.10.10
192.165.2.1
192.169.1.1

17. How does a router keep track of which inside local address is used when NAT overload is configured?
The router adds an additional bit to the source IP address and maintains a separate table.
The router modifies the QoS field.
The router uses TCP or UDP port numbers.
The router uses a manual entry that is created and maintained in the database of the router.

18. Refer to the graphic. A technician is investigating why H1 and H2 cannot communicate. What problem should the technician discover?
Sw1 has an incorrect default gateway.
H1 and H2 are on different subnetworks.
Sw1 needs an IP address assigned in the same subnetwork.
The H2 IP address should be changed to 192.168.22.34/28.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Which address is an inside global address?
10.1.1.1
10.1.1.2
198.18.1.55
64.100.0.1

20. Refer to the exhibit. What solution would solve the discontiguous network problem and prevent the routers from advertising misleading networks?
Turn automatic summarization off and manually summarize the routes at the classful boundary.
Allow automatic summarization to send the most optimal route.
Change the routing protocol to a classless routing protocol, such as RIPv1.
Change the LAN addressing schemes on R2 and R3 to use VLSM since it supports discontiguous networks.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which two IP addresses could be assigned to the hosts that are shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
192.168.65.31
192.168.65.32
192.168.65.35
192.168.65.60
192.168.65.63
192.168.65.64

22. Which two statements differentiate between flat and hierarchical networks? (Choose two.)
In a hierarchical design, the network consists of all Layer 2 devices.
In a hierarchical design, a network consists of a single broadcast domain.
In a flat network, all hosts can be reached without having to pass through a router.
In a flat network, hosts using multiple broadcast domains pass through routers.
In a hierarchical design, a network is divided into layers to reduce congestion and the size of failure domains.

23. A network technician has been asked to implement a hierarchical addressing scheme. Which two statements could describe the hierarchical addressing scheme structure to the technician? (Choose two.)
A hierarchical addressing structure logically groups networks into smaller subnetworks.
A hierarchical network operates most efficiently without a specific address structure.
Route summarization will operate efficiently in a hierarchical network without a hierarchical addressing scheme.
A hierarchical addressing structure can simplify network management and improve scalability.
An effective hierarchical addressing scheme must begin with a classful network at the distribution layer.

CCNA Discovery 3 Chapter 3 V4.0 Answers


DRSEnt Chapter 3 – CCNA Discovery: Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise (Version 4.0)

1. Which statement describes a difference between STP and RSTP?
RSTP is proprietary while STP is defined by IEEE.
RSTP defines four port states while STP defines five port states.
When a topology changes, RSTP reconfigures the spanning tree in less than 1 second.
STP is more commonly used in large switched enterprise networks that require faster recovery.

2. In an enterprise network, why would voice traffic typically require a dedicated VLAN?
It guarantees end-to-end delivery for voice traffic.
It guarantees higher bandwidth for voice traffic.
It separates voice traffic from data traffic so data traffic does not impact voice traffic.
It provides backup support for voice traffic because voice traffic is more critical than data traffic.

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the network traffic flow on this switch?
All PCs that are connected to this switch will be able to communicate with each other as long as they belong to the same IP network.
A PC that is connected to port Fa0/2 can communicate with another PC that is connected to Port Fa0/22 if the PCs belong to the same IP network.
A PC that is connected to port Fa0/11 can communicate with another PC that is connected to Port Fa0/20 if the PCs belong to the same IP network.
A PC that is connected to port Fa0/15 can communicate with another PC that is connected to Port Fa0/24 regardless of the IP network to which the PCs belong.

4. Which two characteristics describe a port in the STP blocking state? (Choose two.)
receives BPDUs
provides port security
displays a steady green light
learns MAC addresses as BPDUs are processed
discards data frames received from the attached segment

5. Which statement describes the function of a VLAN Management Policy Server (VMPS)?
VMPS provides easy organization of static VLAN membership.
VMPS provides flexible dynamic assignments of VLAN membership.
VMPS provides a backup service for static VLAN membership configuration.
VMPS provides the easiest deployment of VLANs regardless of the number of switches involved.

6. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the commands in the exhibit?
There will be no effect unless the command switchport port-security mac-address mac-addr is added.
The first device that is connected to port fa0/6 will be allowed to transmit data. Any other devices that connect to it will shut down the port.
The first device that is connected to port fa0/6 will be allowed to transmit data. The learned MAC will be kept even after the switch is restarted.
The first device that is connected to port fa0/6 will be allowed to transmit data. Any other devices that connect to it will be allowed to transmit data and a warning will be sent to the syslog server.

7. Which statement is true about the port security feature in a Cisco switch?
It disables unused ports.
It filters network traffic based on host MAC addresses.
It executes a shutdown on the port, based on Layer 4 port numbers.
It disables Telnet traffic because the username and password are transmitted in plain text.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches. Which two are possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)
Switch2 is in transparent mode.
Switch1 is in client mode.
Switch1 is using VTP version 1 and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.
Switch2 is in server mode.
Switch1 is in a different management domain.
Switch1 has no VLANs.

9. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.
VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
There are no ports assigned to the new VLAN on the other switches.
Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.

10. Refer to the exhibit. A router is configured to connect to a trunked uplink of a switch. A packet is received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 10 with a destination address of 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?
forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10
forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60
forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120
not process the packet (because the source and destination are on the same subnet)
drop the packet (because no network that includes the source address is attached to the router)

11. Using STP, how long does it take for a switch port to go from the blocking state to the forwarding state?
2 seconds
15 seconds
20 seconds
50 seconds

12. Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the information that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
All ports that are listed in the exhibit are access ports.
ARP requests from Host1 will be forwarded to Host2.
Attaching Host1 to port 11 will automatically allow communication between both hosts.
The default gateway for each host must be changed to 192.168.3.250/28 to allow communication between both hosts.
A router connected to the switch is needed to forward traffic between the hosts.

13. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator noticed that the VLAN configuration changes at SW2 did not propagate to SW3. On the basis of the partial output of the show vtp status command, what is the possible cause of the problem?
VTP V2 mode is disabled.
SW3 is configured as transparent mode.
The number of existing VLANs does not match.
The configuration revision number does not match.

14. Which two items are contained within a BPDU? (Choose two.)
identity of the default gateway
number of ports blocked by STP
identity of the root bridge
identity of the source port
VTP domain name

15. A router has two serial interfaces and two Fast Ethernet interfaces. This router must be connected to a WAN link and to a switch that supports four VLANs. How can this be accomplished in the most efficient and cost-effective manner to support inter-VLAN routing between the four VLANs?
Connect a smaller router to the serial interface to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.
Add two additional Fast Ethernet interfaces to the router to allow one VLAN per interface.
Connect a trunked uplink from the switch to one Fast Ethernet interface on the router and create logical subinterfaces for each VLAN.
Use serial-to-Fast Ethernet transceivers to connect two of the VLANs to the serial ports on the router. Support the other two VLANs directly to the available FastEthernet ports.

16. Which three must be used when a router interface is configured for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
one subinterface per VLAN
one physical interface for each subinterface
one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
one trunked link per VLAN
a management domain for each subinterface
a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface

17. What is the purpose of VTP?
maintaining consistency in VLAN configuration across the network
routing frames from one VLAN to another
routing the frames along the best path between switches
tagging user data frames with VLAN membership information
distributing BPDUs to maintain loop-free switched paths

18. Which two criteria are used by STP to select a root bridge? (Choose two.)
memory size
bridge priority
switching speed
number of ports
base MAC address
switch location

19. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are interconnected by trunked links and are configured for VTP as shown. A new VLAN is added to Switch1. Which three actions will occur? (Choose three.)
Switch1 will not add the VLAN to its database and will pass the update to Switch 2.
Switch2 will add the VLAN to its database and pass the update to Switch3.
Switch3 will pass the VTP update to Switch4.
Switch3 will add the VLAN to its database.
Switch4 will add the VLAN to its database.
Switch4 will not receive the update.

20. Which two items will prevent broadcasts from being sent throughout the network? (Choose two.)
bridges
routers
switches
VLANs
hubs

21. When are MAC addresses removed from the CAM table?
at regular 30 second intervals
when a broadcast packet is received
when the IP Address of a host is changed
after they have been idle for a certain period of time

22. Which statement best describes adaptive cut-through switching?
The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then changes to store-and-forward switching if errors exceed a threshold value.
The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then changes to fast-forward switching if errors exceed a threshold value.
The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then temporarily disables the port if errors exceed a threshold value.
The switch initially forwards all traffic using store-and-forward switching and then changes to cut-through switching if errors exceed a threshold value.

23. Which Catalyst switch feature causes an access port to enter the spanning-tree forwarding state immediately?
backbonefast
uplinkfast
portfast
rapid spanning tree

24. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
election of the root bridge
determination of the designated port for each segment
blocking of the non-designated ports
selection of the designated trunk port
activation of the root port for each segment

25. In which STP state does a switch port transmit user data and learn MAC addresses?
blocking
learning
disabling
listening
forwarding